Member

I will just refer to the comments of the noble Lord, Lord Kamall, in this regard, if I might take a moment to contemplate the matter. He asked: if the World Health Organization defines mental health as a clinically significant disturbance, would the Government be sympathetic to Amendment 4, and therefore how could they accept a definition contrary to that of the World Health Organization? I will consider the definition further and will be pleased to come back to the noble Lord.