Member

In sitting on your Lordships’ Select Committee, I became aware of a series of correspondence between Ministry of Justice Ministers in the other place and Rebecca Paul MP, which raised issues outlining why the term “undue influence” is not used in the Bill. Why is the test in Amendment 116 not consistent with the rest of the wording in the Bill? I would be grateful to hear from the noble Baroness the Minister about whether the Government have changed their mind. My recollection is that the reasoning was that, first, it was not necessary to use the term “undue influence” and, secondly, there was concern about bringing in that concept precisely because of relationships in which it is presumed that there is undue influence. I wait to hear from the noble Lord, Lord John, once he has made his maiden speech.